SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
1. Compiler is the
(a) name given to the computer operator
(b) part of the digital machine to store the information
(c) translator of source program to object
(d) part of arithmetic logic unit
(e) operator of Boolean Algebra
Ans (c) 2. Main memory is(a) Random Access Memory (b) Read only Memory
(c) Serial Access Memory (d) None of these
Ans (a)
3. Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working?
(a) Supercomputer (b) Quantum Computer
(c) Param-10,000 (d) IBM chips
Ans (b)
4. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage of the type
(a) Magnetic (b) Optical (c) Electrical (d) Electromechanical
Ans (a)
5. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming?(a) WINDOWS (b) PASCAL (c) BASIC
(d) COBOL (e) All of these
Ans (a)
6. What are the two basic types of memory that your computer uses?(a) RAM (b) RW/RAM (c) ROM (d) ERAM (e) POST
Ans (a)
7. The term gigabyte refers to
(a) 1024 bytes (b) 1024 kilobytes (c) 1024 megabytes
(d) 1024 gigabytes (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
8. A computer with CPU speed around 100 million instructions per second & with the word length of around 64 bits is known as
(a) Super computer (b) Mini computer (c) Micro computer
(d) Micro computer (e) None of the above
Ans (a)
9. What digits are representative of all binary numbers?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) Both (a ) and (b) (d) 3 (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
10. To locate a data items for storage is
(a) Field (b) Feed (c) Database
(d) Fetch (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
11. Off-line operation is the operation of devices without the control of
(a) Memory (b) CPU (c) ALU
(d) Control unit (e) None of the above
Ans (b)
12. A type of line printer that uses an embossed steel band to form the letters printed on the paper is
(a) Golf ball printer (b) Dot-matrix printer
(c) Laser printer (d) Band printer (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
13. A software used to convert source program instructions to object instruction is known as
(a) Compiler (b) Assembler (c) Interpreter
(d) Language processor (e) None of the above
14. The 'IC' chip, used in computers, is made of
(a) Chromium (b) Iron oxide (c) Silica (d) Silicon
Ans (d)
15. Name the first general purpose electronic computer
Ans : UNIVAC
16. The size of commonly used Floppy disk is
(a) 4.5” (b) 3.5” (c) 3.25” (d) 5.5”
Ans (b)
17. Which of the following statement is wrong
(a) Windows XP is an operating system
(b) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft
(c) Photoshop is a graphical design tool by Adobe
(d) Linux is free and open source software
Ans (b)
18. Operating system of a computer
(a) Enables the programmer to draw a flow chart
(b) Links a program with subroutine with references
(c) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
(d) None of the above
Ans (c)
19. The term ‘Operating System’ means
(a) A set of programs which control computer working
(b) The way a user operates the computer system
(c) Conversion of high level language to machine language
(d) The way computer operator works
Ans (a)
20. Wild card operators specifies
(a) can be used when writing into multiple files
(b) allows several files to be read simultaneously
(c) Provide an easy way of groups of related files
(d) Are only used when printing the contents of a file
Ans (c)
21.Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium
(a) Microwave (b) Fibre optic cable
(c) Twisted pair (d) Coaxial cable
Ans (c)
22.Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation
(a) Coaxial cable (b) Satellite (c) Modem (d) Optical fibre
Ans (c)
23. Which one of the following is not an application software package
(a) Redhat Linux (b) Microsoft Office
(c) Adobe PageMaker (d) Open Office
Ans (a)
24. Who is the father of computer
Ans : Charles Babbage
25.The function of key F4 is
Ans : To repeat the last action
26.The function of key F4 is
Ans : To repeat the last action
27. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or .......
(a) bytes (b) kilobytes (c) decimal bytes (d) bits (e) nibbles
Ans (D)
28. A monitor's ...... is the distance between the holes in the mask behind the screen. This helps determine how sharp the dots appear.
(a) refresh rate (b) dot pitch (c) resolution
(d) colour depth (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
29. A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ....... resident package.
(a) CPU (b) memory (c) Buffer (d) ALU (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
30. Perforated paper used as input or output media is known as
(a) Paper tape (b) Magnetic tape (c) Punched paper tape
(d) Card punch (e) None of the above
Ans (A)
31. The invention of the slide rule is attributed to
(a) Babbage (b) Oughtred (c) Pascal
(d) Napier (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
32. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage.
(a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
(b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
(c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans (e)
33. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro computer are expressed as
(a) Bytes (b) Kilo-bytes (c) Bits
(d) Megabytes (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
34. A prefix for billion which is equal to .... is called as billi.
(a) 100 (b) 10000 (c) 1000 (d) 10 (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
35. Each model of a computer has a unique
(a) Assembly language (b) Machine language
(c) High level language (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans (b)
36. One kilobyte = ____ byte.
(a) 1250 (b) 2088 (c) 1024 (d) 1000
Ans (c)
37. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?
(a) Rectifier (b) Flip-Flop (c) Comparator (d) Attenuator
Ans (b)
38. To move the cursor to the end of the document press
Ans : Ctrl + End
39. In Word Processing the red underline indicates
Ans : Spelling mistakes
40. The shortcut key to print documents is
Ans : Ctrl + P
41. First layer in the OSI reference model is
(a) Data link (b) Network (c) Physical (d) Application
Ans (c)
42. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are
(a) able to harm computer system
(b) unable to detect if affected on computer
(c) user-friendly applications
(d) harmless applications resident on computer
Ans (a)
43. Program threats are
(a) Trap doors (b) Trojan horse (c) Both (a) & (b
Ans (b)
44. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from
(a) Electronic monitoring (b) Visual (c) Both (a) & (b)
Ans (c)
45. Data security threats include
(a) Hardware failure (b) Privacy invasion
(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data (d) All of the above
Ans (b)
46. The bar which displays information about the current page number is
Ans : Status bar
47. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are
(a) Task bar (b) Windows (c) Desktop (d) Icons
Ans (d)
48. Who invented the super-computer?
(a) P.T Farnsworth (b) J.R Whinfield
(c) J.H. Van Tassell (d) Charles Ginsberg
Ans (c)
49. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is
(a) Time sharing (b) Random
(c) Direct access (d) Access time (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
50. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is
(a) Delay time (b) Real time (c) Execution time
(d) Down time (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
Showing posts with label Question papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Question papers. Show all posts
Thursday, November 12, 2009
SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
1. Register is a
(a) Set of capacitors used to register input instructions in a digital computer
(b) Set of paper tapes and cards put in a file
(c) Temporary storage unit within the CPU having dedicated or general purpose use
(d) part of the auxiliary memory
(e) device to convert current signal into voltage signal
Ans (c)
2. Errors in computer results could be due to
(a) encoding of data (b) transmission of data
(c) manipulation of data (d) all of the above
(e) none of above
Ans (d)
3. Terminal is a
(a) device used to give supply to a computer
(b) Point at which data may leave or enter the computer
(c) ending point in a program
(d) point where wires are interconnected
(e) an input/output device
Ans (b)
4. A computer programmer
(a) enters data into computer
(b) writes programs
(c) changes flow chart into instructions
(d) provides solutions to complex problems
(e) does total planning and thinking for a computer
Ans (e)
5.Pickup wrong definition
(a) Off line - is a system peripheral equipment not controlled by CPU
(b) Online - is system in which peripheral equipment is in direct contact with CPU
(c) Peripherals - are hardware under the control of CPU, like punched card readers, tapes, drums, disk, output devices
(d) PL/I is the acronym Peripheral Listing /Index
(e) Program or routine is a set sequence of instructions given to computer for problem solving
Ans (d)
6. When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and Video system) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of phenomenon of
(a) reflection and diffraction
(b) reflection and transmission
(c) diffraction and transmission
(d) refraction, diffraction and transmission
(e) none of these
Ans (d) Internet is an inter-networking of information from one part of the network to any other provided the information is packed according to certain conventions
7. For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
(a) quartz crystal
(b) titanium needle
(c) laser beam
(d) barium titanium ceramic
(e) none of these
Ans (c) LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
8. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
(a) eight decimal digits (b) eight binary digits
(c) two binary digits (d) two decimal digits (e) none of these
Ans (b) A byte consists of 8 bits—8 binary digits
9. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?
(a) Rectifier (b) Flip-Flop (c) Comparator (d) Attenuator (e) none of these
Ans (b) Flip-flop refers to an electronic component which can adopt one of two possible states -0 or 1. It acts as an electronic switch which gets changed its state when input signals are received
10. Which is/are the main provisions of Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000?
(a) Legal recognition to digital signatures and documents.
(b) Finalisation of contracts through electronic media.
(c) Making hacking with computer system an office.
(d) All of the above
Ans (d)
11. Consider the following statements about Internet facility:
I. It serves as the largest one-line information system.
II. It provides the most dependable and latest mode for sending E-mail.
III. Recurring expenditure on communication E-mail is very high.
IV. It is often misused and has triggered cyber-crimes.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) II and III
Ans (a)
12. The computer device primarily used to provide hard copy is the
(a) CRT (b) Line Printer (c) Computer Console (d) Card Reader
Ans (b)
13. The unit of hardware, which an operator uses to monitor computer processing, is the
(a) Card Reader (b) CPU (c) Line Printer (d) Console
Ans (d)
14. Computers can be classified in which of the following hierarchical orders?
(a) PC, Large, Super Micro, Super Computer
(b) Super Micro, PC, Large, Super Computer
(c) PC, Super Micro, Large, Super Computer
(d) Large, Super Micro, Super Computer, PC
Ans (c)
15. Which one of the following is a stored program machine?
(a) Micro-processor (b) Calculator
(c) Analog-computer (d) Micro-computer
Ans (d)
16. First generation computer systems used
(a) Transistors (b) Vacuum tubes
(c) Magnetic cores (d) Silicon chips
Ans (b)
17. Transistors are associated with which computer system?
(a) First generation (b) Fifth generation
(c) Second generation (d) None of these
Ans (c)
18. Charles Babbage invented
(a) ENIAC (b) Difference engine (c) Electronic computer (d) Punched card
Ans (b)
19. Who wrote the book 'Computer Liberation and Dream Machine', the first book on personal computers?
(a) John McCarthy (b) Ted Nelson (c) Niklaus Wirth (d) Karl Capek
Ans (b)
20. Who was the inventor of mechanical calculator for adding numbers?
(a) Charles Babbage (b) Peano (c) Newton (d) Pascal
Ans (D)
21. The most widely used commercial programming computer language is
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d) PASCAL
Ans (b) Cobol is abbreviated term for Common Business Oriented Language. It is high level programme language designed to assist the task of programs by enabling them to write programme in more simple manner
22.The brain of a computer is
(a) CPU (b) CD (c) Floppy disc (d) Megabyte
Ans (A) CPU is abbreviated term for Central Processing Unit. It is the principal operating part of a computer
23. Foxpro' is
(a) a medicine (b) a disease (c) a computer language (d) an animal
Ans (C)
24.In computer language, one kilobyte equals
(a) 1000 bytes (b) 1024 bytes (c) 100 bytes (d) 8 bytes
Ans (b) The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes
25. Which one of the following is not a programming language of a computer?
(a) BASIC (b) FORTRAN (c) LASER (d) PASCAL
Ans (c)
26.Which of the following packages is used for composition in printing press?
(a) Lotus (b) dBase (c) Page Maker (d) Word Perfect
Ans (c)
27. Which one of the following is not a computer language?
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) LOTUS (d) FORTRAN
Ans (d)
28. The individual within the operations group who ordinarily uses a variety of keyboard devices, is the
(a) Data Clerk (b) Keypunch Operator
(c) Data Entry Clerk (d) Computer Operator
Ans (c)
29. An advantage of a distributed word processing network is
(a) increased number of reports handled
(b) less delay in inter-office communications
(c) greater corporate control over outputs
(d) All of these
Ans (b)
30.The retrieval of information from the computer is defined as
(a) collection of data (b) data retrieval operations
(c) output (d) data output collection
Ans (c)
31. Which of the following terms could be used to describe the concurrent processing of computer programs via CRTs, on one computer system?
(a) Time sharing (b) On-line processing
(c) Interactive processing (d) All of these
Ans (d)
32.The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of
(a) batch processing (b) real-time processing
(c) time-sharing (d) off-line processing
Ans (a)
33. A characteristic of card system is
(a) slowness in processing data
(b) using cards as records of transactions
(c) needing a larger data staff
(d) All of these
Ans (d)
34. Which of the following floppy sizes exists?
(a) 5.25 inches (b) 4.75 inches (c) 6 inches (d) 8 inches
Ans (a)
35. MS-DOS is the name of a/an
(a) Application software (b) Hardware
(c) System software (d) None of these
Ans (c)
36. A peripheral device used in a word processing system is
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic card reader
(c) CRT (d) All of these
Ans (d)
37. A term used interchangeably with diskette is
(a) Disk cartridge (b) Disk pack
(c) Floppy disk (d) Packette disk
Ans (c)
38. An I/O device which provides photographic outputs for printing galleys, is the
(a) Camera printer (b) Automatic typesetter
(c) Radix printer (d) All of these
Ans (d)
39. Which one of the following a file?
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic drum (c) magnetic tape (d) None of these
Ans (d)
40.A decimal equivalent of m second is
(a) 0.000001 sec (b) 1000000 sec (c) 0.001 sec (d) 1000 sec
Ans (a)
41. A characteristic of the ASCII code is
(a) its limitation to a maximum of 96 character configuration
(b) its use of the zone codes 1010, 1011 and 1100
(c) its independence from Hollerith code
(d) All of these
Ans (c)
42. A temporary storage area, attached to the CPU, for I/O operations, is a
(a) Channel (b) Buffer (c) Register (d) Core
Ans (b)
43. The computer code for interchange of information between terminals is
(a) ASCII (b) BCD (c) BCDIC (d) Hollerith
Ans (a)
44. ROM is composed of
(a) Magnetic cores (b) Micro-processors
(c) Photoelectric cells (d) Floppy disks
Ans (b)
45. Which of the following is true?
(a) Plotters are not available for microcomputer systems
(b) Micro-computer are not programmed like conventional computers
(c) Mini-computers are task-oriented
(d) The contents of ROM are easily changed
Ans (c)
46. Magnetic disk a medium known as
(a) Serial access (b) Direct access (c) Sequential access (d) Sequential and rotational access
Ans (b)
47. A dot-matrix printer
(a) is an input-output device (b) is an output device only
(c) is an input device only (d) None of these
Ans (b)
48.An octal number 237 is equal to the binary number
(a) 010 011 111 (b) 010 111 011
(c) 011 101 101 (d) 011 000 001
Ans (c)
49. A term associated with the comparison of processing speed is
(a) FFTS (b) MPG (c) MIPS (d) CPS
Ans (c)
50. The maximum size of a memory addressed by 12 bits is
(a) 1 K bytes (b) 16 K bytes (c) 32 K bytes (d) 4 K bytes
Ans (d)
Labels: BANK PO COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE, sbi bank clerk computer questions 0 comments
sbi bank clerk computer based sample questions
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Tuesday, May 6, 2008 at 12:04 AM
1. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
database is structured.
database is well-designed.
database has no data.
database is relatively small.
Ans (3)
2. A regular subquery can be processed:
from the top down.
from the bottom up.
by nesting.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
3. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
Correlated subqueries only
EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
Both of the above are helpful
None of the above are helpful.
Ans (3)
4. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
They are very similar to a regular subquery.
Ans (4)
5. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
any row in the subquery meets the condition only.
all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
both of these two conditions are met.
neither of these two conditions is met.
Ans (1)
6. The NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if:
any row in the subquery meets the condition.
all rows in the subquery fail the condition.
both of these two conditions are met.
neither of these two conditions is met.
Ans (2)
7. How can you find rows that do not match some specified condition?
EXISTS
Double use of NOT EXISTS
NOT EXISTS
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
8. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
test any changes on a test database only.
create a complete backup of the operational database only.
All of the above should be done.
Ans (4)
9. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is known as:
data modeling.
database design.
reverse engineering.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (3)
10. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
1. a conceptual model.
2. an internal model.
3. a logical model.
4. None of the above is correct.
Ans (4)
11. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a:
dependency graph.
data model.
graphical display.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (1)
12. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process?
One
Two
Three
Four
Ans (3)
13 Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
RENAME TABLE
CHANGE TABLE
ALTER TABLE
None of the above is correct.
Ans (4)
14.What SQL command can be used to add columns to a table?
MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
Ans (3)
15. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
Ans (3)
16. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
drop the primary key.
drop the table containing the foreign key..
drop the foreign key constraint.
All of the above must be done.
Ans (3)
17. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
Changing a column data type from char to date
Changing a column data type from numeric to char
Both of the above actions should succeed.
Neither of the above actions will succeed.
Ans (1)
18. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0?
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0);
None of the above is correct.
Ans (3)
19. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
a common database design task.
a rare database design task, but does occur.
a database design task that never occurs.
is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it.
Ans (1)
20. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are __________ about using an automated process for database redesign.
optimistic
skeptical
ambivalent
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
1. Register is a
(a) Set of capacitors used to register input instructions in a digital computer
(b) Set of paper tapes and cards put in a file
(c) Temporary storage unit within the CPU having dedicated or general purpose use
(d) part of the auxiliary memory
(e) device to convert current signal into voltage signal
Ans (c)
2. Errors in computer results could be due to
(a) encoding of data (b) transmission of data
(c) manipulation of data (d) all of the above
(e) none of above
Ans (d)
3. Terminal is a
(a) device used to give supply to a computer
(b) Point at which data may leave or enter the computer
(c) ending point in a program
(d) point where wires are interconnected
(e) an input/output device
Ans (b)
4. A computer programmer
(a) enters data into computer
(b) writes programs
(c) changes flow chart into instructions
(d) provides solutions to complex problems
(e) does total planning and thinking for a computer
Ans (e)
5.Pickup wrong definition
(a) Off line - is a system peripheral equipment not controlled by CPU
(b) Online - is system in which peripheral equipment is in direct contact with CPU
(c) Peripherals - are hardware under the control of CPU, like punched card readers, tapes, drums, disk, output devices
(d) PL/I is the acronym Peripheral Listing /Index
(e) Program or routine is a set sequence of instructions given to computer for problem solving
Ans (d)
6. When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and Video system) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of phenomenon of
(a) reflection and diffraction
(b) reflection and transmission
(c) diffraction and transmission
(d) refraction, diffraction and transmission
(e) none of these
Ans (d) Internet is an inter-networking of information from one part of the network to any other provided the information is packed according to certain conventions
7. For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
(a) quartz crystal
(b) titanium needle
(c) laser beam
(d) barium titanium ceramic
(e) none of these
Ans (c) LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
8. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
(a) eight decimal digits (b) eight binary digits
(c) two binary digits (d) two decimal digits (e) none of these
Ans (b) A byte consists of 8 bits—8 binary digits
9. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?
(a) Rectifier (b) Flip-Flop (c) Comparator (d) Attenuator (e) none of these
Ans (b) Flip-flop refers to an electronic component which can adopt one of two possible states -0 or 1. It acts as an electronic switch which gets changed its state when input signals are received
10. Which is/are the main provisions of Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000?
(a) Legal recognition to digital signatures and documents.
(b) Finalisation of contracts through electronic media.
(c) Making hacking with computer system an office.
(d) All of the above
Ans (d)
11. Consider the following statements about Internet facility:
I. It serves as the largest one-line information system.
II. It provides the most dependable and latest mode for sending E-mail.
III. Recurring expenditure on communication E-mail is very high.
IV. It is often misused and has triggered cyber-crimes.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) II and III
Ans (a)
12. The computer device primarily used to provide hard copy is the
(a) CRT (b) Line Printer (c) Computer Console (d) Card Reader
Ans (b)
13. The unit of hardware, which an operator uses to monitor computer processing, is the
(a) Card Reader (b) CPU (c) Line Printer (d) Console
Ans (d)
14. Computers can be classified in which of the following hierarchical orders?
(a) PC, Large, Super Micro, Super Computer
(b) Super Micro, PC, Large, Super Computer
(c) PC, Super Micro, Large, Super Computer
(d) Large, Super Micro, Super Computer, PC
Ans (c)
15. Which one of the following is a stored program machine?
(a) Micro-processor (b) Calculator
(c) Analog-computer (d) Micro-computer
Ans (d)
16. First generation computer systems used
(a) Transistors (b) Vacuum tubes
(c) Magnetic cores (d) Silicon chips
Ans (b)
17. Transistors are associated with which computer system?
(a) First generation (b) Fifth generation
(c) Second generation (d) None of these
Ans (c)
18. Charles Babbage invented
(a) ENIAC (b) Difference engine (c) Electronic computer (d) Punched card
Ans (b)
19. Who wrote the book 'Computer Liberation and Dream Machine', the first book on personal computers?
(a) John McCarthy (b) Ted Nelson (c) Niklaus Wirth (d) Karl Capek
Ans (b)
20. Who was the inventor of mechanical calculator for adding numbers?
(a) Charles Babbage (b) Peano (c) Newton (d) Pascal
Ans (D)
21. The most widely used commercial programming computer language is
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d) PASCAL
Ans (b) Cobol is abbreviated term for Common Business Oriented Language. It is high level programme language designed to assist the task of programs by enabling them to write programme in more simple manner
22.The brain of a computer is
(a) CPU (b) CD (c) Floppy disc (d) Megabyte
Ans (A) CPU is abbreviated term for Central Processing Unit. It is the principal operating part of a computer
23. Foxpro' is
(a) a medicine (b) a disease (c) a computer language (d) an animal
Ans (C)
24.In computer language, one kilobyte equals
(a) 1000 bytes (b) 1024 bytes (c) 100 bytes (d) 8 bytes
Ans (b) The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes
25. Which one of the following is not a programming language of a computer?
(a) BASIC (b) FORTRAN (c) LASER (d) PASCAL
Ans (c)
26.Which of the following packages is used for composition in printing press?
(a) Lotus (b) dBase (c) Page Maker (d) Word Perfect
Ans (c)
27. Which one of the following is not a computer language?
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) LOTUS (d) FORTRAN
Ans (d)
28. The individual within the operations group who ordinarily uses a variety of keyboard devices, is the
(a) Data Clerk (b) Keypunch Operator
(c) Data Entry Clerk (d) Computer Operator
Ans (c)
29. An advantage of a distributed word processing network is
(a) increased number of reports handled
(b) less delay in inter-office communications
(c) greater corporate control over outputs
(d) All of these
Ans (b)
30.The retrieval of information from the computer is defined as
(a) collection of data (b) data retrieval operations
(c) output (d) data output collection
Ans (c)
31. Which of the following terms could be used to describe the concurrent processing of computer programs via CRTs, on one computer system?
(a) Time sharing (b) On-line processing
(c) Interactive processing (d) All of these
Ans (d)
32.The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of
(a) batch processing (b) real-time processing
(c) time-sharing (d) off-line processing
Ans (a)
33. A characteristic of card system is
(a) slowness in processing data
(b) using cards as records of transactions
(c) needing a larger data staff
(d) All of these
Ans (d)
34. Which of the following floppy sizes exists?
(a) 5.25 inches (b) 4.75 inches (c) 6 inches (d) 8 inches
Ans (a)
35. MS-DOS is the name of a/an
(a) Application software (b) Hardware
(c) System software (d) None of these
Ans (c)
36. A peripheral device used in a word processing system is
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic card reader
(c) CRT (d) All of these
Ans (d)
37. A term used interchangeably with diskette is
(a) Disk cartridge (b) Disk pack
(c) Floppy disk (d) Packette disk
Ans (c)
38. An I/O device which provides photographic outputs for printing galleys, is the
(a) Camera printer (b) Automatic typesetter
(c) Radix printer (d) All of these
Ans (d)
39. Which one of the following a file?
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic drum (c) magnetic tape (d) None of these
Ans (d)
40.A decimal equivalent of m second is
(a) 0.000001 sec (b) 1000000 sec (c) 0.001 sec (d) 1000 sec
Ans (a)
41. A characteristic of the ASCII code is
(a) its limitation to a maximum of 96 character configuration
(b) its use of the zone codes 1010, 1011 and 1100
(c) its independence from Hollerith code
(d) All of these
Ans (c)
42. A temporary storage area, attached to the CPU, for I/O operations, is a
(a) Channel (b) Buffer (c) Register (d) Core
Ans (b)
43. The computer code for interchange of information between terminals is
(a) ASCII (b) BCD (c) BCDIC (d) Hollerith
Ans (a)
44. ROM is composed of
(a) Magnetic cores (b) Micro-processors
(c) Photoelectric cells (d) Floppy disks
Ans (b)
45. Which of the following is true?
(a) Plotters are not available for microcomputer systems
(b) Micro-computer are not programmed like conventional computers
(c) Mini-computers are task-oriented
(d) The contents of ROM are easily changed
Ans (c)
46. Magnetic disk a medium known as
(a) Serial access (b) Direct access (c) Sequential access (d) Sequential and rotational access
Ans (b)
47. A dot-matrix printer
(a) is an input-output device (b) is an output device only
(c) is an input device only (d) None of these
Ans (b)
48.An octal number 237 is equal to the binary number
(a) 010 011 111 (b) 010 111 011
(c) 011 101 101 (d) 011 000 001
Ans (c)
49. A term associated with the comparison of processing speed is
(a) FFTS (b) MPG (c) MIPS (d) CPS
Ans (c)
50. The maximum size of a memory addressed by 12 bits is
(a) 1 K bytes (b) 16 K bytes (c) 32 K bytes (d) 4 K bytes
Ans (d)
Labels: BANK PO COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE, sbi bank clerk computer questions 0 comments
sbi bank clerk computer based sample questions
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Tuesday, May 6, 2008 at 12:04 AM
1. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
database is structured.
database is well-designed.
database has no data.
database is relatively small.
Ans (3)
2. A regular subquery can be processed:
from the top down.
from the bottom up.
by nesting.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
3. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
Correlated subqueries only
EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
Both of the above are helpful
None of the above are helpful.
Ans (3)
4. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
They are very similar to a regular subquery.
Ans (4)
5. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
any row in the subquery meets the condition only.
all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
both of these two conditions are met.
neither of these two conditions is met.
Ans (1)
6. The NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if:
any row in the subquery meets the condition.
all rows in the subquery fail the condition.
both of these two conditions are met.
neither of these two conditions is met.
Ans (2)
7. How can you find rows that do not match some specified condition?
EXISTS
Double use of NOT EXISTS
NOT EXISTS
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
8. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
test any changes on a test database only.
create a complete backup of the operational database only.
All of the above should be done.
Ans (4)
9. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is known as:
data modeling.
database design.
reverse engineering.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (3)
10. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
1. a conceptual model.
2. an internal model.
3. a logical model.
4. None of the above is correct.
Ans (4)
11. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a:
dependency graph.
data model.
graphical display.
None of the above is correct.
Ans (1)
12. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process?
One
Two
Three
Four
Ans (3)
13 Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
RENAME TABLE
CHANGE TABLE
ALTER TABLE
None of the above is correct.
Ans (4)
14.What SQL command can be used to add columns to a table?
MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
Ans (3)
15. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
Ans (3)
16. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
drop the primary key.
drop the table containing the foreign key..
drop the foreign key constraint.
All of the above must be done.
Ans (3)
17. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
Changing a column data type from char to date
Changing a column data type from numeric to char
Both of the above actions should succeed.
Neither of the above actions will succeed.
Ans (1)
18. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0?
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0);
None of the above is correct.
Ans (3)
19. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
a common database design task.
a rare database design task, but does occur.
a database design task that never occurs.
is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it.
Ans (1)
20. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are __________ about using an automated process for database redesign.
optimistic
skeptical
ambivalent
None of the above is correct.
Ans (2)
State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper
State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper
Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge
161. Cross-selling covers—
(A) Identifying customer needs
(B) Matching the Products to customer needs
(C) Convincing the customers of Product benefits
(D) Responding to questions and objections of customers
(E) All of these
162. A Prospect means—
(A) Any customer who walks into the Bank
(B) An employee of the Bank
(C) A customer who is likely to be interested in Bank's Product or service
(D) A Depositor of the Bank
(E) A Borrower of the Bank
163. A Lead means—
(A) A Prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's Product
(B) A Political Leader
(C) A Religious Leader
(D) A Bank Chairman
(E) None of these 164. Innovation means—
(A) Compensation
(B) Inspiration
(C) Additional perquisites
(D) Implementing new ideas or new methods
(E) None of these
165. A Call means—
(A) Calling on friends
(B) Calling on Bank employees
(C) Calling on Prospective customers
(D) To make telephone calls
(E) Calling on relatives
166. The Traditional Marketing style involves—
(A) Telemarketing
(B) Digital Marketing
(C) Indirect Marketing
(D) Direct Marketing
(E) All of these
167. Modern methods of Marketing include—
(A) Publicity on the net
(B) Advertisement on the net
(C) Soliciting business through e-mails
(D) Telemarketing
(E) All of these
168. A true marketing mindset requires—
(A) Command and order mindset
(B) Control mindset
(C) Active mindset
(D) Passive mindset
(E) None of these
169. Which of the following sentences is True ?
(A) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market
(B) Marketing is not required in a Sellers' Market
(C) Marketing is not required due to globalization
(D) Marketing is not required due to competition
(E) Marketing is not required due to liberalization
170. For effective marketing, the salesmen should have which of these qualities—
(A) Creativity
(B) Team spirit
(C) Motivation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
171. Market information means—
(A) Knowledge of shops and bazaars
(B) Knowledge of shopping malls
(C) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix
(D) Knowledge of various languages
(E) None of these
172. Market Research is needed for—
(A) Deciding the market area
(B) Deciding the right product to be sold
(C) Making proper marketing decisions
(D) Deciding right time to sell
(E) All of these
173. Which of the following statements is True ?
(A) Marketing makes the Company to go into loss due to higher expenses
(B) Marketing is not required in profit-making companies
(C) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees
(D) Marketing is a time-bound seasonal function
(E) Marketing is a waste of time
174. Marketing Plan helps in—
(A) Better lead generation
(B) Better systems
(C) Better results
(D) Improved Balance Sheet
(E) Better customer service
175. If Marketing is done effectively, which of the following is not required—
(A) Advertisement
(B) Publicity
(C) Market Research
(D) Market Segmentation
(E) None of these
176. Motivation means—
(A) Inspiring employees to perform better
(B) Better Communication Skills
(C) Sales coaching
(D) Market Research
(E) None of these
177. In a Selling Process in today's world—
(A) Only standard products are sold
(B) No customization required
(C) The Seller need not have product knowledge
(D) The Seller should aim at customer satisfaction
(E) Only quantum of sales matters
178. Find the True statement—
(A) Marketing is a waste of the employees' time
(B) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population
(C) Marketing involves additional work
(D) Marketing involves team work
(E) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement
179. A Target Market is—
(A) Entire country
(B) Entire city
(C) Entire globe
(D) That which consists of customers who need the identified product
(E) All of these
180. Sales forecasting involves—
(A) Sales Planning
(B) Sales pricing
(C) Distribution Channels
(D) Consumer tastes
(E) All of these
181. How many options does a binary choice offer ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) It depends on the amount of memory in the computer
(E) It depends on the speed of the computer's processor
182. Data going into the computer is called—
(A) Output
(B) Algorithm
(C) Input
(D) Calculations
(E) Flowchart
183. How many values can be represented by a single byte ?
(A) 4
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 256
(E) 512
184. Transformation of input into output is performed by—
(A) Peripherals
(B) Memory
(C) Storage
(D) The Input-Output unit
(E) The CPU
185. Device drivers are—
(A) Tiny power cords for external storage devices
(B) Experts who know how to maximize the performance of devices
(C) Small, special-purpose programs
(D) The innermost part of the operating system
(E) Substitutes for operating system
186. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called—
(A) Operating system
(B) Computer
(C) Office
(D) Compiler
(E) Interpreter
187. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(A) LAN
(B) DSL
(C) RAM
(D) USB
(E) CPU
188. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) Mentor(B) Instructor
(C) Compiler(D) Program
(E) Debugger
189. If you receive an e-mail from someone you don't know, what should you do ?
(A) Forward it to the police immediately
(B) Delete it without opening it
(C) Open it and respond to them saying you don't know them
(D) Reply and ask them for their personal information
(E) Reply and tell them you want to keep in touch with them
190. Which of the following can handle most system functions that aren't handled directly by the operating system ?
(A) Vertical-market applications
(B) Utilities
(C) Algorithms
(D) Integrated software
(E) Compilers
191. Microsoft Office is—
(A) Shareware
(B) Public-domain software
(C) Open-source software
(D) A vertical-market application
(E) An application suite
192. Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can—
(A) Run faster
(B) Go on line
(C) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment
(D) E-mail
(E) None of these
193. Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer ?
(A) RAM
(B) DSL
(C) USB
(D) LAN
(E) CPU
194. Information travels between components on the motherboard through—
(A) Flash memory (B) CMOS
(C) Bays (D) Buses
(E) Peripherals
195. One megabyte equals approximately—
(A) 1,000 bits
(B) 1,000 bytes
(C) 1 million bytes
(D) 1 million bits
(E) 2,000 bytes
196. When you are working on a document on a PC, where is the document temporarily stored ?
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) The CPU
(D) Flash memory
(E) The CD-ROM
197. How are data organized in a spreadsheet ?
(A) Lines and spaces
(B) Layers and planes
(C) Height and width
(D) Rows and columns
(E) None of these
198. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is—
(A) A random-access medium
(B) A sequential-access medium
(C) A read-only medium
(D) Fragile and easily damaged
(E) An expensive storage medium
199. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the—
(A) Mouse
(B) Logo
(C) Hand
(D) Palm
(E) Cursor
200. When cutting and pasting, the item cut is temporarily stored in—
(A) ROM
(B) Hard drive
(C) Diskette
(D) Dashboard
(E) Clipboard
Answers 161.(B) 162. (C) 163. (A) 164. (D)
165.(C) 166. (C) 167. (E) 168. (A)
169.(B) 170. (E) 171. (C) 172. (E)
173.(E) 174. (E) 175. (B) 176. (A)
177.(D) 178. (D) 179. (D) 180. (E)
181.(C) 182. (C) 183. (E) 184. (E)
185.(D) 186. (B) 187. (A) 188. (D)
189.(B) 190. (A) 191. (E) 192. (C)
193.(A) 194. (D) 195. (C) 196. (A)
197.(D) 198. (E) 199. (E) 200. (E)
Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge
161. Cross-selling covers—
(A) Identifying customer needs
(B) Matching the Products to customer needs
(C) Convincing the customers of Product benefits
(D) Responding to questions and objections of customers
(E) All of these
162. A Prospect means—
(A) Any customer who walks into the Bank
(B) An employee of the Bank
(C) A customer who is likely to be interested in Bank's Product or service
(D) A Depositor of the Bank
(E) A Borrower of the Bank
163. A Lead means—
(A) A Prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's Product
(B) A Political Leader
(C) A Religious Leader
(D) A Bank Chairman
(E) None of these 164. Innovation means—
(A) Compensation
(B) Inspiration
(C) Additional perquisites
(D) Implementing new ideas or new methods
(E) None of these
165. A Call means—
(A) Calling on friends
(B) Calling on Bank employees
(C) Calling on Prospective customers
(D) To make telephone calls
(E) Calling on relatives
166. The Traditional Marketing style involves—
(A) Telemarketing
(B) Digital Marketing
(C) Indirect Marketing
(D) Direct Marketing
(E) All of these
167. Modern methods of Marketing include—
(A) Publicity on the net
(B) Advertisement on the net
(C) Soliciting business through e-mails
(D) Telemarketing
(E) All of these
168. A true marketing mindset requires—
(A) Command and order mindset
(B) Control mindset
(C) Active mindset
(D) Passive mindset
(E) None of these
169. Which of the following sentences is True ?
(A) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market
(B) Marketing is not required in a Sellers' Market
(C) Marketing is not required due to globalization
(D) Marketing is not required due to competition
(E) Marketing is not required due to liberalization
170. For effective marketing, the salesmen should have which of these qualities—
(A) Creativity
(B) Team spirit
(C) Motivation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
171. Market information means—
(A) Knowledge of shops and bazaars
(B) Knowledge of shopping malls
(C) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix
(D) Knowledge of various languages
(E) None of these
172. Market Research is needed for—
(A) Deciding the market area
(B) Deciding the right product to be sold
(C) Making proper marketing decisions
(D) Deciding right time to sell
(E) All of these
173. Which of the following statements is True ?
(A) Marketing makes the Company to go into loss due to higher expenses
(B) Marketing is not required in profit-making companies
(C) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees
(D) Marketing is a time-bound seasonal function
(E) Marketing is a waste of time
174. Marketing Plan helps in—
(A) Better lead generation
(B) Better systems
(C) Better results
(D) Improved Balance Sheet
(E) Better customer service
175. If Marketing is done effectively, which of the following is not required—
(A) Advertisement
(B) Publicity
(C) Market Research
(D) Market Segmentation
(E) None of these
176. Motivation means—
(A) Inspiring employees to perform better
(B) Better Communication Skills
(C) Sales coaching
(D) Market Research
(E) None of these
177. In a Selling Process in today's world—
(A) Only standard products are sold
(B) No customization required
(C) The Seller need not have product knowledge
(D) The Seller should aim at customer satisfaction
(E) Only quantum of sales matters
178. Find the True statement—
(A) Marketing is a waste of the employees' time
(B) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population
(C) Marketing involves additional work
(D) Marketing involves team work
(E) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement
179. A Target Market is—
(A) Entire country
(B) Entire city
(C) Entire globe
(D) That which consists of customers who need the identified product
(E) All of these
180. Sales forecasting involves—
(A) Sales Planning
(B) Sales pricing
(C) Distribution Channels
(D) Consumer tastes
(E) All of these
181. How many options does a binary choice offer ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) It depends on the amount of memory in the computer
(E) It depends on the speed of the computer's processor
182. Data going into the computer is called—
(A) Output
(B) Algorithm
(C) Input
(D) Calculations
(E) Flowchart
183. How many values can be represented by a single byte ?
(A) 4
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 256
(E) 512
184. Transformation of input into output is performed by—
(A) Peripherals
(B) Memory
(C) Storage
(D) The Input-Output unit
(E) The CPU
185. Device drivers are—
(A) Tiny power cords for external storage devices
(B) Experts who know how to maximize the performance of devices
(C) Small, special-purpose programs
(D) The innermost part of the operating system
(E) Substitutes for operating system
186. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called—
(A) Operating system
(B) Computer
(C) Office
(D) Compiler
(E) Interpreter
187. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(A) LAN
(B) DSL
(C) RAM
(D) USB
(E) CPU
188. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) Mentor(B) Instructor
(C) Compiler(D) Program
(E) Debugger
189. If you receive an e-mail from someone you don't know, what should you do ?
(A) Forward it to the police immediately
(B) Delete it without opening it
(C) Open it and respond to them saying you don't know them
(D) Reply and ask them for their personal information
(E) Reply and tell them you want to keep in touch with them
190. Which of the following can handle most system functions that aren't handled directly by the operating system ?
(A) Vertical-market applications
(B) Utilities
(C) Algorithms
(D) Integrated software
(E) Compilers
191. Microsoft Office is—
(A) Shareware
(B) Public-domain software
(C) Open-source software
(D) A vertical-market application
(E) An application suite
192. Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can—
(A) Run faster
(B) Go on line
(C) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment
(D) E-mail
(E) None of these
193. Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer ?
(A) RAM
(B) DSL
(C) USB
(D) LAN
(E) CPU
194. Information travels between components on the motherboard through—
(A) Flash memory (B) CMOS
(C) Bays (D) Buses
(E) Peripherals
195. One megabyte equals approximately—
(A) 1,000 bits
(B) 1,000 bytes
(C) 1 million bytes
(D) 1 million bits
(E) 2,000 bytes
196. When you are working on a document on a PC, where is the document temporarily stored ?
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) The CPU
(D) Flash memory
(E) The CD-ROM
197. How are data organized in a spreadsheet ?
(A) Lines and spaces
(B) Layers and planes
(C) Height and width
(D) Rows and columns
(E) None of these
198. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is—
(A) A random-access medium
(B) A sequential-access medium
(C) A read-only medium
(D) Fragile and easily damaged
(E) An expensive storage medium
199. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the—
(A) Mouse
(B) Logo
(C) Hand
(D) Palm
(E) Cursor
200. When cutting and pasting, the item cut is temporarily stored in—
(A) ROM
(B) Hard drive
(C) Diskette
(D) Dashboard
(E) Clipboard
Answers 161.(B) 162. (C) 163. (A) 164. (D)
165.(C) 166. (C) 167. (E) 168. (A)
169.(B) 170. (E) 171. (C) 172. (E)
173.(E) 174. (E) 175. (B) 176. (A)
177.(D) 178. (D) 179. (D) 180. (E)
181.(C) 182. (C) 183. (E) 184. (E)
185.(D) 186. (B) 187. (A) 188. (D)
189.(B) 190. (A) 191. (E) 192. (C)
193.(A) 194. (D) 195. (C) 196. (A)
197.(D) 198. (E) 199. (E) 200. (E)
SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
1) What does that acronym VGA stand for?
a) Extended Graphics Adapter
b) Enhanced Graphics Array
c) Video Graphics Array
d) Color Graphics Array
2) ISP stands for
a) Internet Service Provider;
b) Information Services Provider;
c) International Services Program;
d) Industrial Services program
3) One KB equals
a) 1000 Bytes;
b) 1000MB;
c) 1024 bytes;
d) 1024 MB
4) LAN means
a) Land Acquisition Notification;
b) Local Area Network;
c) Large Area Network;
d) Low Area Network
5) One MB equals
a) 1000 bytes;
b) 1000GB;
c) 1024 KB;
d) 1024 GB
6) MICR stands for
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition;
b) Magnetic Ink Charter Recognition
c) Magnetic Ink Charter Release;
d) Magnetic Ink Character Release
7) The communication equipment used in the computer is
a) CPU
b) MODEM;
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
8) Which of the following is a national net work ?
a) WAN
b) NICNET
c) WWW
d) HTTP
9) Which of the following can be used for Monitors ?
a) LCD
b) LAN
c) PIN
d) SQL
10) BIOS stands for
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Base Input Output System
c) Broad Information Output System
d) Basic Information Operating System
11) Which of the following is used for International Inter Bank Financial Communications?
a) SWIFT
b) CBS
c) WWW
d) SPNS
12) Which of the following not used in the Computers?
a) Key Board
b) Monitor
c) Power (AC/DC)
d) Handle
13) What does CBS mean?
a) Cost Benefit Services;
b) Current Business Services
c) Core Banking Services;
d) Cost of Banking Services
14) Marketing in Banks is the job of
a) Specialized marketing personnel;
b) every employee in the bank;
c) Manager of the bank;
d) Sales associates
15) The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
16) The rate of interest on Fixed and Investment Deposits is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
17) The rate of interest on Savings Bank accounts is
a) 3.5 % p.a.;
b) 4%p.a;
c) 4.5% p.a
d) 5%p.a
18) Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of
a) Assignment
b) Pledge;
c) Transfer;
d) Mortgage;
19) The regulator of the banking system in India is
a) RBI;
b) Finance Minister;
c) SEBI;
d) IBA
20) Which of the following is a financial asset?
a) Gold;
b) silver;
c) Shares in a demat account;
d) Land & buildings
21) NAV is normally used in respect of schemes floated by
a) Banks;
b) Mutual funds;
c) Insurance Companies;
d) Merchant banker
22) EMI is normally used in respect of which of the following loans?
a) Personal Loans;
b) Home Loans;
c) Consumer Loans;
d) All the above
23) The maximum period for which fixed deposit accounts allowed to be opened in a bank for an individual customer
a) 3 years;
b) 5 years;
c) 10 years;
d) 20 years
24) Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for
a) Salaried class;
b) businessmen;
c) foreign customers;
d) children
25) Four Ps of Marketing is also known as
a) Marketing Mix
b) Marketing Concept
c) Marketing environment
d) Marketing strategies
Answers
Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans
1 c 11 a 21 b
2 a 12 d 22 d
3 c 13 c 23 c
4 b 14 b 24 a
5 c 15 b 25 a
6 a 16 a
7 b 17 a
8 b 18 d
9 a 19 a
10 a 20 c
1) What does that acronym VGA stand for?
a) Extended Graphics Adapter
b) Enhanced Graphics Array
c) Video Graphics Array
d) Color Graphics Array
2) ISP stands for
a) Internet Service Provider;
b) Information Services Provider;
c) International Services Program;
d) Industrial Services program
3) One KB equals
a) 1000 Bytes;
b) 1000MB;
c) 1024 bytes;
d) 1024 MB
4) LAN means
a) Land Acquisition Notification;
b) Local Area Network;
c) Large Area Network;
d) Low Area Network
5) One MB equals
a) 1000 bytes;
b) 1000GB;
c) 1024 KB;
d) 1024 GB
6) MICR stands for
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition;
b) Magnetic Ink Charter Recognition
c) Magnetic Ink Charter Release;
d) Magnetic Ink Character Release
7) The communication equipment used in the computer is
a) CPU
b) MODEM;
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
8) Which of the following is a national net work ?
a) WAN
b) NICNET
c) WWW
d) HTTP
9) Which of the following can be used for Monitors ?
a) LCD
b) LAN
c) PIN
d) SQL
10) BIOS stands for
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Base Input Output System
c) Broad Information Output System
d) Basic Information Operating System
11) Which of the following is used for International Inter Bank Financial Communications?
a) SWIFT
b) CBS
c) WWW
d) SPNS
12) Which of the following not used in the Computers?
a) Key Board
b) Monitor
c) Power (AC/DC)
d) Handle
13) What does CBS mean?
a) Cost Benefit Services;
b) Current Business Services
c) Core Banking Services;
d) Cost of Banking Services
14) Marketing in Banks is the job of
a) Specialized marketing personnel;
b) every employee in the bank;
c) Manager of the bank;
d) Sales associates
15) The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
16) The rate of interest on Fixed and Investment Deposits is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
17) The rate of interest on Savings Bank accounts is
a) 3.5 % p.a.;
b) 4%p.a;
c) 4.5% p.a
d) 5%p.a
18) Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of
a) Assignment
b) Pledge;
c) Transfer;
d) Mortgage;
19) The regulator of the banking system in India is
a) RBI;
b) Finance Minister;
c) SEBI;
d) IBA
20) Which of the following is a financial asset?
a) Gold;
b) silver;
c) Shares in a demat account;
d) Land & buildings
21) NAV is normally used in respect of schemes floated by
a) Banks;
b) Mutual funds;
c) Insurance Companies;
d) Merchant banker
22) EMI is normally used in respect of which of the following loans?
a) Personal Loans;
b) Home Loans;
c) Consumer Loans;
d) All the above
23) The maximum period for which fixed deposit accounts allowed to be opened in a bank for an individual customer
a) 3 years;
b) 5 years;
c) 10 years;
d) 20 years
24) Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for
a) Salaried class;
b) businessmen;
c) foreign customers;
d) children
25) Four Ps of Marketing is also known as
a) Marketing Mix
b) Marketing Concept
c) Marketing environment
d) Marketing strategies
Answers
Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans
1 c 11 a 21 b
2 a 12 d 22 d
3 c 13 c 23 c
4 b 14 b 24 a
5 c 15 b 25 a
6 a 16 a
7 b 17 a
8 b 18 d
9 a 19 a
10 a 20 c
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(HELD ON 06-07-2008 SECOND SITTING)
General Awareness
1. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Shame’?
(a) Chandar S. Sundaram (b) Namita Gokhale
(c) Jaswindar Sanghara (d) Anita Desai
(e) None of these
2. As per the reports published by the ‘Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)’ has generated maximum new jobs in the past few years?
(a) China (b) Russia
(c) India (d) Brazil
(e) None of these
3. Mr. Digambar V. Kamat took over as which of the following in 2007?
(a) Governor of Goa (b) Chief Minister of Goa
(c) Governor of Meghalaya (d) Governor of Rajasthan
(e) None of these
4. Who amongst the following Indians was awarded King Charles II Medal by the UK in 2007?
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh (b) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(c) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (d) Smt. Vasundhara Raje
(e) None of these
5. Miss Riyo Mori who was crowned as Miss Universe 2007 belongs to which of the following countries?
(a) Japan (b) U.S.A
(c) China (d) Singapore
(e) South Korea
6. Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the base camp of Mt. Everest?
(a) India (b) China
(c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
(e) None of these
7. ‘Bharti-Airtel’, the largest mobile company of India joined the elite club of companies earning profits of more than US $1 billion. What was the net profit of the Company in the year 2006-07?
About –
(a) Rs. 3500 crores
(b) Rs. 4000 crores
(c) Rs. 4250 cores
(d) Rs. 4450 crores
(e) Rs. 4500 crores
8. ‘SEBI’ bans some companies for their role in ‘F&O Scam’, was the news in some major newspapers in 2007. What is the full form of ‘F&O’?
(a) Fair & Optimum
(b) Free & Operational
(c) Future & Operations
(d) Future & Options
(e) None of these
9. Which of the following African countries launched its communication satellite in 2007 for the first time?
(a) Nigeria (b) Kenya
(c) Zimbabwe (d) Mauritius
(e) None of these
10. The President of Brazil was on a visit to India in 2007 where he signed several trade agreements. Which of the following has been the major area of trade relations between the two countries?
(a) Oil exploration (b) Supply of agro products
(c) Production of nuclear fuel (d) Import of electronic goods
(e) None of these
11. The World Islamic Economic Forum was held in 2007 in
(a) Malaysia (b) Kuwait
(c) Iran (d) Brazil
(e) Indonesia
12. In an important meeting of the National Development Council held in New Delhi the Prime Minister of India made a special mention of a particular sector of Indian economy which in his opinion was suffering from a “Technological Fatigue for lack of break through in production”. He was talking of which of the following sectors?
(a) Agriculture Sector (b) Oil Sector
(c) Service Sector (d) Defence Sector
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held in Germany in 2007?
(a) Subsidy to agro products (b) Climate protection
(c) Financial aid to Iraq
(d) Nuclear Technology and possibility of space war
(e) None of these
14. As per the Economic Survey 2006-07 India’s share in World Export has been
(a) 0.5% (b) 0.75%
(c) 1% (d) 1.25%
(e) 1.5%
15. How much amount approximately the Govt. of India planned to provide for Mid Day Meal Scheme? (As per Budget 2007-08)
(a) Rs. 5,000 crores (b) Rs. 6,000 crores
(c) Rs. 7,300 crores (d) Rs. 8,000 crores
(e) Rs. 8,300 crores
16. As per the figures given in the newspapers what is the approximate investment in various ‘Special Economic Zones’ till date in India?
(a) Rs. 20,000 crores (b) Rs. 25,000 crores
(c) Rs. 30,000 crores (d) Rs. 35,000 crores
(e) Rs. 40,000 crores
17. Who amongst the following is the author of the famous classical book “A Passage to India”?
(a) Mark Twain (b) Nayantara Sehgal
(c) Nirad C. Choudhuri (d) E. M. Foster
(e) None of these
18. The Government of India has bought RBI’s entire stake in the State Bank of India in about Rs. 35, 531 crores. What is the share of the RBI in total snake of the State Bank? About -
(a) 40% (b) 48%
(c) 50% (d) 52%
(e) 60%
19. Which of the following countries has offered knighthood to Salman Rushdie?
(a) France (b) Italy
(c) Germany (d) U.K.
(e) None of these
20. As per Union Budget 2007-08 how much amount the Government of India provided for Women Specific Schemes/Programmes for 2007-08?
(a) Rs. 7,700 crores (b) Rs. 8,700 crores
(c) Rs. 9,300 crores (d) Rs. 10,000 crores
(e) Rs. 10,500 crores
Answer Keys
1) (c) 2) (c) 3) (b) 4) (c) 5) (a)
6) (b) 7) (c) 8) (d) 9) (a) 10) (a)
11) (a) 12) (a) 13) (b) 14) (c) 15) (c)
16) (d) 17) (d) 18) (e) 19) (d) 20) (b)
(HELD ON 06-07-2008 SECOND SITTING)
General Awareness
1. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Shame’?
(a) Chandar S. Sundaram (b) Namita Gokhale
(c) Jaswindar Sanghara (d) Anita Desai
(e) None of these
2. As per the reports published by the ‘Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)’ has generated maximum new jobs in the past few years?
(a) China (b) Russia
(c) India (d) Brazil
(e) None of these
3. Mr. Digambar V. Kamat took over as which of the following in 2007?
(a) Governor of Goa (b) Chief Minister of Goa
(c) Governor of Meghalaya (d) Governor of Rajasthan
(e) None of these
4. Who amongst the following Indians was awarded King Charles II Medal by the UK in 2007?
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh (b) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(c) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (d) Smt. Vasundhara Raje
(e) None of these
5. Miss Riyo Mori who was crowned as Miss Universe 2007 belongs to which of the following countries?
(a) Japan (b) U.S.A
(c) China (d) Singapore
(e) South Korea
6. Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the base camp of Mt. Everest?
(a) India (b) China
(c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
(e) None of these
7. ‘Bharti-Airtel’, the largest mobile company of India joined the elite club of companies earning profits of more than US $1 billion. What was the net profit of the Company in the year 2006-07?
About –
(a) Rs. 3500 crores
(b) Rs. 4000 crores
(c) Rs. 4250 cores
(d) Rs. 4450 crores
(e) Rs. 4500 crores
8. ‘SEBI’ bans some companies for their role in ‘F&O Scam’, was the news in some major newspapers in 2007. What is the full form of ‘F&O’?
(a) Fair & Optimum
(b) Free & Operational
(c) Future & Operations
(d) Future & Options
(e) None of these
9. Which of the following African countries launched its communication satellite in 2007 for the first time?
(a) Nigeria (b) Kenya
(c) Zimbabwe (d) Mauritius
(e) None of these
10. The President of Brazil was on a visit to India in 2007 where he signed several trade agreements. Which of the following has been the major area of trade relations between the two countries?
(a) Oil exploration (b) Supply of agro products
(c) Production of nuclear fuel (d) Import of electronic goods
(e) None of these
11. The World Islamic Economic Forum was held in 2007 in
(a) Malaysia (b) Kuwait
(c) Iran (d) Brazil
(e) Indonesia
12. In an important meeting of the National Development Council held in New Delhi the Prime Minister of India made a special mention of a particular sector of Indian economy which in his opinion was suffering from a “Technological Fatigue for lack of break through in production”. He was talking of which of the following sectors?
(a) Agriculture Sector (b) Oil Sector
(c) Service Sector (d) Defence Sector
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held in Germany in 2007?
(a) Subsidy to agro products (b) Climate protection
(c) Financial aid to Iraq
(d) Nuclear Technology and possibility of space war
(e) None of these
14. As per the Economic Survey 2006-07 India’s share in World Export has been
(a) 0.5% (b) 0.75%
(c) 1% (d) 1.25%
(e) 1.5%
15. How much amount approximately the Govt. of India planned to provide for Mid Day Meal Scheme? (As per Budget 2007-08)
(a) Rs. 5,000 crores (b) Rs. 6,000 crores
(c) Rs. 7,300 crores (d) Rs. 8,000 crores
(e) Rs. 8,300 crores
16. As per the figures given in the newspapers what is the approximate investment in various ‘Special Economic Zones’ till date in India?
(a) Rs. 20,000 crores (b) Rs. 25,000 crores
(c) Rs. 30,000 crores (d) Rs. 35,000 crores
(e) Rs. 40,000 crores
17. Who amongst the following is the author of the famous classical book “A Passage to India”?
(a) Mark Twain (b) Nayantara Sehgal
(c) Nirad C. Choudhuri (d) E. M. Foster
(e) None of these
18. The Government of India has bought RBI’s entire stake in the State Bank of India in about Rs. 35, 531 crores. What is the share of the RBI in total snake of the State Bank? About -
(a) 40% (b) 48%
(c) 50% (d) 52%
(e) 60%
19. Which of the following countries has offered knighthood to Salman Rushdie?
(a) France (b) Italy
(c) Germany (d) U.K.
(e) None of these
20. As per Union Budget 2007-08 how much amount the Government of India provided for Women Specific Schemes/Programmes for 2007-08?
(a) Rs. 7,700 crores (b) Rs. 8,700 crores
(c) Rs. 9,300 crores (d) Rs. 10,000 crores
(e) Rs. 10,500 crores
Answer Keys
1) (c) 2) (c) 3) (b) 4) (c) 5) (a)
6) (b) 7) (c) 8) (d) 9) (a) 10) (a)
11) (a) 12) (a) 13) (b) 14) (c) 15) (c)
16) (d) 17) (d) 18) (e) 19) (d) 20) (b)
SBI Probationary Officer's Exam question paper 2009
SBI Probationary Officer's Exam 2008
(Held on 12-10-2008)
General Awareness/Computer Knowledge
1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____
(A) Goa
(B) Bihar
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____
(A) Tokyo
(B) New York
(C) Madrid
(D) Stckholm
(E) Beijing
Ans (E)
3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?
(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru
(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas
(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /
(A) Jet Airways
(B) Ranbaxy
(C) Bhilai Steel Plant
(D) National Textiles Corporation
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?
(A) 5 %
(B) 6 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 8 %
(E) 9 %
Ans (C)
6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)
(A) London
(B) New York
(C) Tokyo
(D) Beijing
(E) Mumbai
Ans (D)
7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___
(A) Credit Policy
(B) Monetary Policy
(C) KYC Norms
(D) Basel Accord
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reserve Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) Liquidity Ratio
(E) None of these
Ans (E)
9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?
(1) Turmoil in US Credit market
(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains
(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2 only
(E) All 1,2 & 3
Ans (D)
10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?
(A) 5 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 30 %
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?
(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon
(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region
(C) It is new battle tank produced by India
(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?
(A) Seeds
(B) Pesticides
(C) Fertilizers
(D) Organic Manure
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___
(A) India
(B) Egypt
(C) Brazil
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___
(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Governor , Jharkhand
(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand
(E) Governor, Manipur
Ans (B)
15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Recession
(C) Deflation
(D) Economic Boom
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?
(A) NATO
(B) SAARC
(C) European Union
(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___
(A) Treasury Bill
(B) Momerandom of Association
(C) Kisan Vikas Patra
(D) National Saving Certificate
(E) Commercial Papers
Ans (E)
18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Kazakhastan
(C) Croatia
(D) Georgia
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (E)
20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Swimming
(E) Rifle Shooting
Ans (E)
(Held on 12-10-2008)
General Awareness/Computer Knowledge
1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____
(A) Goa
(B) Bihar
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____
(A) Tokyo
(B) New York
(C) Madrid
(D) Stckholm
(E) Beijing
Ans (E)
3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?
(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru
(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas
(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /
(A) Jet Airways
(B) Ranbaxy
(C) Bhilai Steel Plant
(D) National Textiles Corporation
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?
(A) 5 %
(B) 6 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 8 %
(E) 9 %
Ans (C)
6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)
(A) London
(B) New York
(C) Tokyo
(D) Beijing
(E) Mumbai
Ans (D)
7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___
(A) Credit Policy
(B) Monetary Policy
(C) KYC Norms
(D) Basel Accord
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reserve Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) Liquidity Ratio
(E) None of these
Ans (E)
9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?
(1) Turmoil in US Credit market
(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains
(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2 only
(E) All 1,2 & 3
Ans (D)
10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?
(A) 5 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 30 %
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?
(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon
(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region
(C) It is new battle tank produced by India
(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?
(A) Seeds
(B) Pesticides
(C) Fertilizers
(D) Organic Manure
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___
(A) India
(B) Egypt
(C) Brazil
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___
(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Governor , Jharkhand
(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand
(E) Governor, Manipur
Ans (B)
15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Recession
(C) Deflation
(D) Economic Boom
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?
(A) NATO
(B) SAARC
(C) European Union
(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___
(A) Treasury Bill
(B) Momerandom of Association
(C) Kisan Vikas Patra
(D) National Saving Certificate
(E) Commercial Papers
Ans (E)
18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Kazakhastan
(C) Croatia
(D) Georgia
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (E)
20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Swimming
(E) Rifle Shooting
Ans (E)
Sunday, November 8, 2009
Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 2-9-2008)
Agriculture
1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ?
(A) Date-palm
(B) Cabbage
(C) Orange
(D) Grapes
(E) Peas
2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?
(A) 500 hrs.
(B) 600 hrs.
(C) 1000 hrs.
(D) 1500 hrs.
(E) 2000 hrs.
3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Berseem
(D) Lucerne
(E) Grape
4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
(A) 46
(B) 26
(C) 18
(D) 80
(E) 30
5. Contract farming consists of……
(A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
(B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
(C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation
(D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
(E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce
6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
(A) 1/3 atmosphere
(B) below 1/3 atmosphere
(C) 1-3 atmosphere
(D) 3-15 atmosphere
(E) above 15 atmosphere
7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
(A) cultivation expenses
(B) medicinal value of plants
(C) availability of processing unit
(D) location of the farm
(E) availability of assured profitable market
8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
(A) Paddy
(B) Cashew
(C) Coconut
(D) Arecanut
(E) Coco
9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Sugarcane
(E) Tobacco
10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
(A) processing not as per demand
(B) breeds are not suitable for export
(C) no proper transport conditions
(D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases
(E) domestic market is available easily
11. Arabica is a type of……
(A) flower
(B) horse
(C) coffee
(D) vegetable
(E) fodder
12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
(A) Bacteria
(B) Earthworms
(C) Ants
(D) Virus
(E) Fungus
13. The average carbon / nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
(A) 25 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 14 : 1
(E) None of these
14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
(A) It saves water
(B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
(C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
(D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
(E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system
15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall, the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R, is designated as……
(A) Moist
(B) Humid
(C) Moderately Dry
(D) Severe Drought
(E) Dry
16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
(A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
(B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
(C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers
(D) only horticultural crops
(E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system
17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Nilgiri
(C) Sonadi
(D) Dorset
(E) Jaisalmeri
18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ?
(A) Apis mellifera
(B) Apis florea
(C) Apis dorsata
(D) Apis cerana
(E) Apis melipona
19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Orissa
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005 ?
(A) Ricinus communis
(B) Solgum vulgare
(C) Pennisetum typhoides
(D) Arachis hypogaea
(E) India has not released any such hybrid so far
21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……
(A) Green Box
(B) Amber Box
(C) Pink Box
(D) Blue Box
(E) None of these
22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ?
(A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
(B) Pratilenchus thornei
(C) Meloidogyne incognita
(D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture ?
(A) Grass Clippings
(B) Curd
(C) Carrot tops
(D) Lettuce leaves
(E) All are useful
24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ?
(A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
(B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
(C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
(D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100
(E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850
25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January ?
(A) February 20
(B) February 5
(C) January 29
(D) January 22
(E) January 15
26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ?
(A) Grape
(B) Sugar beet
(C) Carrot
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India ?
(A) Gladiolus
(B) Orchids
(C) Bougainvillea
(D) Marigold
(E) None of these
28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ?
(A) 180 acres
(B) 320 acres
(C) 240 acres
(D) 160 acres
(E) None of these
29. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be :
(A) 50 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 5 m
(E) None of these
30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India ?
(A) 200
(B) 1200
(C) 100
(D) 400
(E) None of these
31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
(A) Pasteurella multocida
(B) Brucella melitensis
(C) Clorstridium chauvoei
(D) Sporoltrix schenkii
(E) None of these
32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
(A) Virginia Gold
(B) Santa Rosa
(C) Grand Duke
(D) Rome Beauty
(E) None of these
33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop ?
(A) 36°C
(B) 18°C
(C) 30°C
(D) 12°C
(E) 27°C
34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
(E) Vitamin B6
35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India ?
(A) Tomato
(B) Arecanut
(C) Cashewnut
(D) Coconut
(E) All above horticultural crops
36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation ?
(A) Pennisetum polystachyon
(B) Cenchurus setigerus
(C) Eulalioposis binata
(D) Lasiurus sindicus
(E) Penicum antidotale
37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past ?
(A) Gir
(B) Kankrej
(C) Tharparkar
(D) Nagauri
(E) None of these
38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptom of……
(A) Lactation failure
(B) Poor reproduction
(C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
(D) Birth of hairless piglets
(E) Birth of blind piglets
39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
(E) Rajasthan
40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ?
(A) Soybean
(B) Corn
(C) Cowpea
(D) Canola
(E) None of these
41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year)
(A) June 12
(B) July 29
(C) August 28
(D) September 15
(E) May 30
42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ?
(A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
(B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
(C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
(D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg
(E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg
43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ?
(A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(B) Claviceps microcephala
(C) Leveillula taurica
(D) Puccinia carthami
(E) Fusarium annuum
44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
(A) Japan
(B) Italy
(C) Netherlands
(D) UAE
(E) USA
45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ?
(A) 3•2 kg
(B) 1•8 kg
(C) 2•4 kg
(D) 4•0 kg
(E) 0•9 kg
46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
(A) Ca
(B) Fe
(C) Vit. ‘D’
(D) N
(E) None of these
47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list ?
(A) Coconut
(B) Neem
(C) Palm nut
(D) Mahua
(E) Karanj
48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes) ?
(A) 230•67
(B) 207•00
(C) 217•85
(D) 200•00
(E) None of these
49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ?
(A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
(B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
(C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
(D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus
(E) None of these
50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ?
(A) NABARD (Direct credit)
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Cooperative Banks
(D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (E)
21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (E)
B.Ed. Exam 2008 Solved Paper
Rajasthan Pre-B.Ed. Exam 2008 Solved Paper
Section–A : Mental Ability :: Section–B : Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test
Section–C : General Awareness :: Section–D : Language Proficiency (English)
Section–A
Mental Ability
Mental Ability
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Section–B
Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test
Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test
51. What will be most appropriate in case students conduct indecently ?
(A) To make them fell guilty
(B) To get very angry upon them
(C) To punish them
(D) To make them feel ashamed by preaching
52. Presently, the schools are not able to fulfil the following—
(A) Development of moral values
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity
(C) Preparation of examinations for various degrees
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children
53. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ?
(A) To lead the society
(B) To be the centre of social life
(C) To remain engaged in social activities
(D) To be honoured by society
54. The main task of a teacher is—
(A) to prepare good citizens from his students
(B) to compelte the prescribed syllabus
(C) to increase knowledge
(D) to do politics in the school
55. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class ?
(A) Discriminating
(B) He should pay more attention to weak students
(C) Equal for all students
(D) He should pay more attention to intelligent students
56. A teacher should be involved in social activities—
(A) seldom
(B) only when needed
(C) very frequently
(D) never
57. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination, you will—
(A) ridicule him
(B) advise him to sit at home and do some job
(C) advise him to appear in examination privately
(D) guide him in various subjects according to his needs
58. Why is the parents-Teachers Association considered to be important ?
(A) This helps the school function properly
(B) This helps in understanding students in a better way
(C) This helps in solving the students’ problem
(D) This helps the teachers and parents coming closer
59. What will you do to inclucate the sense of dignity of labour among your students ?
(A) You will present examples before them
(B) You will place real situation before them
(C) You will engage youself in a labour related work before them
(D) You will lecture on dignity of labour
60. What will be the consequence of encouraging women education, in your opinion ?
(A) The society will progress
(B) It will improve the financial position of women
(C) It will hamper the domestic chores
(D) It will make women independent
61. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect ?
(A) Camp organization for students
(B) Poem recitation
(C) Literary interests
(D) Community service
62. What is the objective of teaching Arithmetic in modern primary classes ?
(A) To help students solve real problems
(B) To impart the knowledge of various formulae and principles to students
(C) To provide knowledge of square roots, L.C.M. and H.C.M. to students
(D) The familiarise students with the Laws of Simple Mathematics and Tables
63. Syllabus at primary level should be inclined towards—
(A) Course-content
(B) Social development
(C) Exercises on comprehensive subjects
(D) All the aspects of child growth.
64. Co-curricular activities outside the class-room are given a definite place in the schoolplanning
because—
(A) it helps the school in getting recognition from government
(B) it helps the high school to reach at par with college
(C) it helps the weak students exhibit their talent in other fields
(D) it enriches the school’s teaching programme
65. The purpose of student-council is to—
(A) develop the ability of self-discipline in students
(B) simplify the problems of school management committee
(C) help the Principal in gauging the morale of various students groups and organizations
(D) involve the students in the soultion of school related problems
66. What should the Teacher’s Association do if the Management Committee refuses to accept the demands of teachers ?
(A) Take help from Parents Association to pressurize the Management Committee
(B) Take help from students to pressurize the Management Committee
(C) Teachers’ representatives should talk to the Management Committee
(D) Should go on strike to put pressure on the Management Committee
67. What should be the basis of an effecitve and successful leadership ?
(A) Personal interest
(B) Service of the group
(C) Welfare of the whole group
(D) Praise
68. What should a Principal do about justified demands of the student union ?
(A) Forward their demands to higher authorities
(B) Accept the demands after discussion
(C) Take decision after the incidents of strike and violence
(D) Bring the students on track after scolding them
69. What is advantage to students of participating in team sports ?
(A) Presentation of discipline
(B) Development of leadership qualities
(C) Enjoyment of sports and play
(D) Presentation of strength
70. What is the main responsibility of a classteacher ?
(A) To maintain discipline among the students
(B) To collect fees from students
(C) To maintain all records of the students of the class
(D) To remain alert about the health of students of class
71. …… is essential for the leadership quality.
(A) Social maturity
(B) High intellectual competence
(C) Beauty
(D) Adequate money
72. In your opinion the government sponsored Tree-Plantation Programme is.
(A) only for beautification
(B) for monetary gains
(C) necessary
(D) of no use
73. You remain …… for the fulfilment of your responsibilities.
(A) worried
(B) conscious
(C) careless
(D) Do nothing
74. To-day’s youth is wasting his time in useless activities. What will you do to make him understand the importance of time ?
(A) You will lecture him upon the importance of time
(B) You will reward the students who utilize their time properly
(C) You will set an example by utilizing your time
(D) You will punish those students who waste time
75. You are invited as chief guest in a function. You will—
(A) reach there on time
(B) reach late and fell proud
(C) reach before time
(D) reach late and apologize
76. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) At any level
77. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
78. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money ?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
79. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
80. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher ?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
81. Adult education is for—
(A) illiterate adults
(B) school going adults
(C) normal adult people
(D) All of these
82. When your student performs well you will—
(A) express your happiness
(B) admire him
(C) feel jealous
(D) remain quiet
83. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) humiliating them
(B) punishing them
(C) tempting them
(D) strengthening their inspiration
84. What should be done to maintain discipline among students ?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
85. Which quality is most important for students ?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
86. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies ?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
87. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be ………… with the students.
(A) strict and unapproachable
(B) strict and introvert
(C) respectable, but friendly
(D) independent and approachable
88. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) ask another student to answer
(B) ask easier question
(C) punish him
(D) ask him to sit down
89. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class ?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
90. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) he should be left alone
(B) he should be involved in group activities
(C) he should be asked to meet others
(D) he should be compelled to meet his classmates
91. You worship God because—
(A) your friends tell you to do so
(B) it gives you inner strength
(C) you have religious atmosphere at home
(D) you fear God
92. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty ?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
93. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do ?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
94. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child ?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
95. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
96. What should a teacher do when examinations are near ?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
97. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague ?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
98. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher ?
(A) Authority on subject
(B) Social
(C) Attractive personality
(D) Richness
99. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) this will make students also punctual
(B) students will understand the importance of time
(C) this will inculcate good habit in students
(D) Students become carefree
100. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it ?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
51. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
52. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
53. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
54. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
55. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
56. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) –1
57. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
58. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
59. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
60. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
61. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
62. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
63. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
64. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
65. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
66. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
67. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
68. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
69. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
70. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
71. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
72. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
73. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
74. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 1
75. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
76. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
77. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
78. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
79. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
80. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
81. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
82. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
83. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
84. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 2
85. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
86. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
87. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
88. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
89. (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) – 1
90. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
91. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
92. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
93. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
94. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
95. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
96. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
97. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
98. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
99. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
100. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
(A) To make them fell guilty
(B) To get very angry upon them
(C) To punish them
(D) To make them feel ashamed by preaching
52. Presently, the schools are not able to fulfil the following—
(A) Development of moral values
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity
(C) Preparation of examinations for various degrees
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children
53. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ?
(A) To lead the society
(B) To be the centre of social life
(C) To remain engaged in social activities
(D) To be honoured by society
54. The main task of a teacher is—
(A) to prepare good citizens from his students
(B) to compelte the prescribed syllabus
(C) to increase knowledge
(D) to do politics in the school
55. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class ?
(A) Discriminating
(B) He should pay more attention to weak students
(C) Equal for all students
(D) He should pay more attention to intelligent students
56. A teacher should be involved in social activities—
(A) seldom
(B) only when needed
(C) very frequently
(D) never
57. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination, you will—
(A) ridicule him
(B) advise him to sit at home and do some job
(C) advise him to appear in examination privately
(D) guide him in various subjects according to his needs
58. Why is the parents-Teachers Association considered to be important ?
(A) This helps the school function properly
(B) This helps in understanding students in a better way
(C) This helps in solving the students’ problem
(D) This helps the teachers and parents coming closer
59. What will you do to inclucate the sense of dignity of labour among your students ?
(A) You will present examples before them
(B) You will place real situation before them
(C) You will engage youself in a labour related work before them
(D) You will lecture on dignity of labour
60. What will be the consequence of encouraging women education, in your opinion ?
(A) The society will progress
(B) It will improve the financial position of women
(C) It will hamper the domestic chores
(D) It will make women independent
61. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect ?
(A) Camp organization for students
(B) Poem recitation
(C) Literary interests
(D) Community service
62. What is the objective of teaching Arithmetic in modern primary classes ?
(A) To help students solve real problems
(B) To impart the knowledge of various formulae and principles to students
(C) To provide knowledge of square roots, L.C.M. and H.C.M. to students
(D) The familiarise students with the Laws of Simple Mathematics and Tables
63. Syllabus at primary level should be inclined towards—
(A) Course-content
(B) Social development
(C) Exercises on comprehensive subjects
(D) All the aspects of child growth.
64. Co-curricular activities outside the class-room are given a definite place in the schoolplanning
because—
(A) it helps the school in getting recognition from government
(B) it helps the high school to reach at par with college
(C) it helps the weak students exhibit their talent in other fields
(D) it enriches the school’s teaching programme
65. The purpose of student-council is to—
(A) develop the ability of self-discipline in students
(B) simplify the problems of school management committee
(C) help the Principal in gauging the morale of various students groups and organizations
(D) involve the students in the soultion of school related problems
66. What should the Teacher’s Association do if the Management Committee refuses to accept the demands of teachers ?
(A) Take help from Parents Association to pressurize the Management Committee
(B) Take help from students to pressurize the Management Committee
(C) Teachers’ representatives should talk to the Management Committee
(D) Should go on strike to put pressure on the Management Committee
67. What should be the basis of an effecitve and successful leadership ?
(A) Personal interest
(B) Service of the group
(C) Welfare of the whole group
(D) Praise
68. What should a Principal do about justified demands of the student union ?
(A) Forward their demands to higher authorities
(B) Accept the demands after discussion
(C) Take decision after the incidents of strike and violence
(D) Bring the students on track after scolding them
69. What is advantage to students of participating in team sports ?
(A) Presentation of discipline
(B) Development of leadership qualities
(C) Enjoyment of sports and play
(D) Presentation of strength
70. What is the main responsibility of a classteacher ?
(A) To maintain discipline among the students
(B) To collect fees from students
(C) To maintain all records of the students of the class
(D) To remain alert about the health of students of class
71. …… is essential for the leadership quality.
(A) Social maturity
(B) High intellectual competence
(C) Beauty
(D) Adequate money
72. In your opinion the government sponsored Tree-Plantation Programme is.
(A) only for beautification
(B) for monetary gains
(C) necessary
(D) of no use
73. You remain …… for the fulfilment of your responsibilities.
(A) worried
(B) conscious
(C) careless
(D) Do nothing
74. To-day’s youth is wasting his time in useless activities. What will you do to make him understand the importance of time ?
(A) You will lecture him upon the importance of time
(B) You will reward the students who utilize their time properly
(C) You will set an example by utilizing your time
(D) You will punish those students who waste time
75. You are invited as chief guest in a function. You will—
(A) reach there on time
(B) reach late and fell proud
(C) reach before time
(D) reach late and apologize
76. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) At any level
77. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
78. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money ?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
79. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
80. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher ?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
81. Adult education is for—
(A) illiterate adults
(B) school going adults
(C) normal adult people
(D) All of these
82. When your student performs well you will—
(A) express your happiness
(B) admire him
(C) feel jealous
(D) remain quiet
83. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) humiliating them
(B) punishing them
(C) tempting them
(D) strengthening their inspiration
84. What should be done to maintain discipline among students ?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
85. Which quality is most important for students ?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
86. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies ?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
87. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be ………… with the students.
(A) strict and unapproachable
(B) strict and introvert
(C) respectable, but friendly
(D) independent and approachable
88. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) ask another student to answer
(B) ask easier question
(C) punish him
(D) ask him to sit down
89. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class ?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
90. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) he should be left alone
(B) he should be involved in group activities
(C) he should be asked to meet others
(D) he should be compelled to meet his classmates
91. You worship God because—
(A) your friends tell you to do so
(B) it gives you inner strength
(C) you have religious atmosphere at home
(D) you fear God
92. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty ?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
93. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do ?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
94. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child ?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
95. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
96. What should a teacher do when examinations are near ?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
97. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague ?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
98. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher ?
(A) Authority on subject
(B) Social
(C) Attractive personality
(D) Richness
99. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) this will make students also punctual
(B) students will understand the importance of time
(C) this will inculcate good habit in students
(D) Students become carefree
100. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it ?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
51. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
52. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
53. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
54. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
55. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
56. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) –1
57. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
58. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
59. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
60. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
61. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
62. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
63. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
64. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
65. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
66. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
67. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
68. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
69. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
70. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
71. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
72. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
73. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
74. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 1
75. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
76. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
77. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
78. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
79. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
80. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
81. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
82. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
83. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
84. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 2
85. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
86. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
87. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
88. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
89. (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) – 1
90. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
91. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
92. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
93. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
94. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
95. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
96. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
97. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
98. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
99. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
100. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
P.C.S. Special (Pre.) Exam 2008 Solved Paper -General Studies
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Special (Pre.) Exam 2008 Solved Paper
(Held on 28-12-2008)
General Studies
1. Cardamom hills lie along the border of—
(A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
2. Damodar is a tributory of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Region)
(a) Badam Pahar
(b) Kodarma
(c) Masabani
(d) Rava
List-II (Mineral)
1. Copper
2. Iron ore
3. Petroleum
4. Mica
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 1 3
4. Which one of the following regions of India is highly affected by soil erosion ?
(A) Malwa Palteau
(B) U. P. Tarai
(C) Andhra Coast
(D) Chambal Valley
5. Which one of the following four Foreign Banks operating in India, has the largest number of branches in the country ?
(A) City Bank
(B) BNP Paribus Bank
(C) Standard Chartered Bank
(D) HSBC
6. The Mandal Commission whose suggestions have given rise to unabated controversy, was constituted by—
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Vishwa Nath Pratap Singh
7. Recently Pt. Bhimsen Joshi, the renowned classical singer, has been awarded—
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Kalidas Samman
(C) Padma Bhushan
(D) Padma Shri
8. Match the following :
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) Gold
(b) Coal
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
1. Khetri
2. Kolar
3. Kudremukh
4. Jharia
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
9. Select the State from amongst the following, with the maximum number of wild-life sanctuaries.
(National Park and Sanctuaries)
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
10. The National Environment Engineering Institute is located in—
(A) Cuttack
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Nagpur
(D) Ranchi
11. Name the Governor of Reserve Bank of India who also became Finance Minister—
(A) H. M. Patel
(B) C. D. Desmukh
(C) C. Subramaniam
(D) Sachin Chaudhari
12. The winner of Booker Prize for the year 2008 was—
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Arvind Adiga
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Sebastian Berry
13. The G-8 group of countries includes—
(A) Britain, China, Germany and Japan
(B) Britain, Japan, South Africa and USA
(C) Britain, France, China and Russia
(D) Britain, Canada, Germany and Italy
14. From the list given below, select the one which is declared a ‘‘World Heritage Site’’.
(A) Corbett National Park
(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(C) Rajaji National Park
(D) Gir Forest
15. From the list given below, name the T. V. channel which will cover Engineering and Technology subjects :
(A) Vigyan Darshan
(B) Eklavya
(C) Parivartan
(D) Avishkar
16. The population of a town is 17,71,561. If it had been increasing at 10% per annum, its population 6 years ago was—
(A) 13,31,000
(B) 12,10,000
(C) 11,00,000
(D) 10,00,000
17. If an electric train is moving from North to South, in which direction will smoke from the engine go ?
(A) South-East
(B) North-East
(C) No smoke
(D) South-North
18. Find the missing number in the following figure :
(A) 139
(B) 81
(C) 121
(D) 93
19. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I (States)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
List-II (Governors)
1. G. K. Gandhi
2. S. C. Jamir
3. R. L. Bhatia
4. N. D. Tiwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
20. Before being elected as US President Barack Obama was Senator from—
(A) Colorado
(B) Florida
(C) Georgia
(D) Illinois
21. If ‘PRINT’ is coded as ‘RUMSZ’, then the code for ‘‘DRINK’’ will be—
(A) FUMSP
(B) FUMSQ
(C) GUMSR
(D) GUMSP
22. The missing number in
0, 4, 18, 48, 100, ………
(A) 170
(B) 180
(C) 196
(D) 216
23. In the following sequence of boxes, the values of X and Y are—
(A) X = f, Y = 200
(B) X = f, Y = 250
(C) X = g, Y = 290
(D) X = g, Y = 343
24. The value of x in the equation
is—(A) 42
(B) 35
(C) 21
(D) 27
25. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
26. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 6 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years ?
(A) 7 : 6
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 8 : 7
(D) 9 : 8
27. A room is 12 metre long, 9 metre broad and 8 metre high. The length of the longest bamboo pole that can be placed in it will be—
(A) 17 metre
(B) 16 metre
(C) 15 metre
(D) 14 metre
28. In the circle below-
AB = 16 cms, OC = 6 cms then the radius of the circle is—
(A) 6 cms
(B) 8•5 cms
(C) 10 cms
(D) 12•5 cms
29. A train starts from station A with some passengers. At station B 10% of the passengers get down and 100 passengers get in. At station C 50% get dwon and 25 get in. At station D 50% get down and 50 get in making the total number of passengers 200. The number of passengers who boarded the train at station A was—
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700
30.
In the above figure, the circle represents ‘‘the powerful’’, the square represents ‘‘the rich’’, and the triangle represents ‘‘the leaders’’. How many are with all the three characteristics ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
31. The missing number in the following series :
4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, ……, 125 is—
(A) 90
(B) 35
(C) 25
(D) 20
32. If x–1 – 1 is divided by x – 1, then the quotient is—
33.
In the above diagram, three circles represent businessmen, politicians and the educated respectively. The intersections of the circles give us the numbered space. No. 7 refers to—
(A) Some politicians are educated businessmen
(B) Some educated are businessmen
(C) Some educated are politicians
(D) Some businessmen are politicians
34. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Temples)
(a) Dashavtar Temple
(b) Baba Somnath Temple
(c) Shringi Rishi Temple
(d) Varah Bhagwan Temple
List-II (Districts)
1. Etah
2. Farrukhabad
3. Deoria
4. Lalitpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
35. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Centre)
(a) Aonla
(b) Modinagar
(c) Barabanki
(d) Kanpur
List-II (Industry)
1. Polyfibre
2. Fertilizer
3. Rubber
4. Explosives
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
36. Match List-I with List-II and choose your correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I
(a) Munshi Insha Alla Khan
(b) Babu Devki Nandan Khatri
(c) Pt. Pratap Narain Misra
(d) Jai Shankar Prasad
List-II
1. Hathi Hamir
2. Kankal
3. Kajar ki Kothri
4. Udaibhan Charit
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
37. Arrange the following four districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order with regard to Scheduled Tribes population as per 2001 Census. Choose your correct answer with the help of given codes :
1. Sharavasti
2. Balrampur
3. Bahraich
4. Kheri
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 2, 4, 1 and 3
38. Folk drama ‘‘Rahula’’ is associated with one of the following regions of U. P. ?
(A) Eastern Region
(B) Western Region
(C) Central Region
(D) Bundelkhand Region
39. The U. P. Financial Corporation does not finance—
(A) The acquisition of permanent assets
(B) Tourism related industries
(C) Long-term working capital requirements
(D) Handloom industries
40. Amir Khusrau played a pioneering role in the development of—
(A) Brij Bhasha
(B) Awadhi
(C) Khari Boli
(D) Bhojpuri
41. Which one of the following crop cycles is considered most suitable for Eastern U. P. ?
(A) Rice/Maize-Wheat
(B) Maize-Potato-Moong
(C) Maize-Rape-Wheat
(D) Cotton-Wheat-Moong
42. Every year a fair is held at the tomb of famous Sufi saint Haji Waris Ali Shah at—
(A) Fatehpur Sikri
(B) Kaliar
(C) Deva Shareef
(D) Garhmukteshwar
43. The functions of the Department of Culture set up to look after the historical, ancient and artistic wealth of UP do not include—
(A) Its preservation and exhibition
(B) Its publication
(C) Its documentation
(D) Its sale
44. Consider the following as objectives of the New Science and Technology Policy, 2003 and state which is/are correctly stated, with the help of codes given below :
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and knowledge resources.
2. Development of innovative technologies.
3. Development of system and technologies for mitigation and management of natural hazards.
4. Management of intellectual property.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) All the four
45. Which of the following are the main objective(s) of the Sharda Sahayak Command Development Project ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. To increase agricultural production.
II. To change the land use pattern through multiple cropping.
III. To improve land management.
Codes :
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) All the above three
46. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Ancient Janpads of U. P.)
(a) Kuru
(b) Panchal
(c) Koshal
(d) Vats
List-II (Capitals)
1. Saket
2. Kaushambi
3. Ahichchatra
4. Indraprastha
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
47. Hydrogen gas can be conveniently used as a fuel for running vehicles it is absorbed at very low temperature by a substance only to be released at the temperature generated by the exhaust.
What is that substance found in India ?
(A) Hydrites
(B) Coals
(C) Soap stone
(D) Resins
48. Radar is used mainly for—
(A) Detecting objects by using light waves
(B) Reflecting sound waves to detect objects
(C) Determining the presence and location of objects with radio waves
(D) Tracking rain bearing clouds
49. The globally programmed ‘‘Human Genome Project’’ deals with—
(A) Establishment of a society of super-humans
(B) Identifiction of races based on apartheid
(C) Genetic improvement of human races
(D) Identification and mapping of human genes and gene sequences
50. Which one of the following is the bioethically non-controversial source of stem cells as an alternative to the highly controversial embryonic stem cells ?
(A) Bone marrow-derived stem cells
(B) Amniotic fluid derived stem cells
(C) Blood of foetus
(D) Blood of babies
51. The Minamata disease of Japan in 1953 was caused by eating fish contaminated by—
(A) Nickel
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium
52. Identify a non-CSIR Institute situated at Lucknow in U. P.—
(A) I. I. S. R.
(B) N. B. R. I.
(C) C-MAP
(D) I. T. R. C.
53. Select with the help of the codes given below, the components of Green Revolution :
1. High yielding variety seeds
2. Irrigation
3. Rural Electrification
4. Rural roads and marketing
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) All the four
54. Which one of the following forms an irreversible complex with haemoglobin of the blood ?
(A) Carbon di-oxide
(B) Pure Nitrogen gas
(C) Carbon-mono-oxide
(D) A mixture of carbon dioxide and helium
55. Given :
1. Blood cells
2. Bone cells
3. Hair strands
4. Saliva
Samples taken for DNA testing in criminal investigation can be—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. The 21st Winter Olympics is going to be held in—
(A) Moscow
(B) Oslo
(C) Vacouver
(D) Ottawa
57. The winner of 121st Durand Cup, 2008 was—
(A) Churchill Brothers
(B) J. C. T. Mills
(C) Mahindra United
(D) Sporting Club de Goa
58. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Abhinav Bindra—Shooting
(B) Michael Phelps—Swimming
(C) Maria Sharapova—Badminton
(D) Mohammad Asif—Cricket
59. How many gold medals Michael Phelps won in Beijing Olympics ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
60. In 2010 FIFA 19th World Cup Football Tournament will be held in—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) South Africa
(D) Spain
61. India is developing Cryogenic Technology. Which Country/Agency from amongst the following does not possess this technology ?
(A) European Space Agency
(B) Brazil
(C) United States of America (USA)
(D) Japan
62. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Shenzhou-7, the Chinese spacecraft ?
(A) It was manned by four astronauts
(B) It was launched by a Long March 2F rocket
(C) It was for the first time that the Chinese astronauts performed spacewalk
(D) The astronauts returned safely to earth
63. India won Junior Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, held in July 2008 in Hyderabd, by defeating which country in the final ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Pakistan
(C) Japan
(D) China
64. The winner of U. S. Open 2008, Women’s Singles, was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Elena Dementieva
(C) Jalena Jankovic
(D) Serena Williams
65. In 2008 Sachin Tendulkar broke the recored of Brian Lara for most runs in Test Cricket, while playing against Australia in—
(A) Bangalore Test
(B) Mohali Test
(C) Nagpur Test
(D) New Delhi Test
66. ‘‘The Himalayan Mountaineering Institute’’ is located at—
(A) Uttarkashi
(B) Dehradun
(C) Darjeeling
(D) Shillong
67. The mascot of the 19th Commonwealth Games, to be held in 2010 in New Delhi, is—
(A) Shera
(B) Chital
(C) Cheetah
(D) Bhaloo
68. Who has been given the ‘‘Cricketer of the year Award’’ by the ICC in September 2008 ?
(A) D. Steyn
(B) G. Smith
(C) S. Chanderpaul
(D) S. Tendulkar
69. The winner of the World Junior Badminton Championship, held in Pune in October-November 2008, was—
(A) Gurusai Dutt
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Sayako Sato
(D) Shixian Wang
70. Among the following greenhouse gases, which does not cause ozone pollution in troposphere ?
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon mono-oxide
(C) Nitrogen oxides (NOX)
(D) Water vapours
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Sphygno-manometer
(c) Caratometer
(d) Lux meter
List-II
1. To measure intensity of light
2. To check purity of gold
3. To hear heart sound
4. To measure blood pressure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
72. ‘‘Radioactive dating’’ is a technique which can be used to measure—
(A) The age of rocks
(B) Composition of rocks
(C) Colour of rocks
(D) Weight of rocks
73. ‘Euro norms’ are meant for—
(A) Regulating vehicular speed
(B) Classifying size of the vehicle
(C) Regulating vehicular emission of harmful gases
(D) Specifying power of the engine
74. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and brain is—
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Paralysis
(C) Sclerosis
(D) Meningitis
75. Which of the following statements are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘‘Athletic’s foot’’ is a disease caused by virus.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
76. The ‘Ring of Fire’ is associated with—
1. Earthquake
2. Volcanoes
3. Pacific Ocean
4. Forest Fires
Choose your answer with the help of codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. When does heart rest ?
(A) Never
(B) While sleeping
(C) Between two beats
(D) While doing yoga
78. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a few hours, the room temperature—
(A) Will decrease
(B) Will increase
(C) Will remain the same
(D) Will decrease only in the area in the vicinity of the refrigerator
79. Match the pollutants with their long-term effects with the help of the given code :
Pollutants
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Oxides of Nitrogen
(c) Soil particles
(d) Lead
Effects
1. Damage to lever and kidney
2. Cancer
3. Ailments related to breathing
4. Central nervous system
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
80. Electric motors operating at low voltages tend to burn out because—
(A) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the voltage
(B) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the square root of the voltage
(C) They draw heat proportional to v2
(D) Low voltage sets in electrical discharge
81. Which one of the following sites has yielded the cultural remains from Neolithic to Harappan period ?
(A) Amri
(B) Mehrgarh
(C) Kotdiji
(D) Kalibangan
82. Mother of Gautam Buddha belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Shakya dynasty
(B) Maya dynasty
(C) Lichchavi dynasty
(D) Koliya dynasty
83. Who became the first follower of Mahavira ?
(A) Jamalis
(B) Yashoda
(C) Aanojja
(D) Trishala
84. Which one of the following Buddhist texts speaks of the ‘‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’’ ?
(A) Anguttar Nikaya
(B) Majjhim Nikaya
(C) Khuddaka Nikaya
(D) Digha Nikaya
85. Earliest evidence of rice cultivation in the Ganga valley has been found at—
(A) Lahuradeva
(B) Senuwar
(C) Sohgaura
(D) Kaushambi
86. Name the Pala King who founded the Vikramshila University—
(A) Dharmapala
(B) Devapala
(C) Ramapala
(D) Gopala
87. In which of the following conditions wet clothes will dry earliest?
(A) 100% RH, 60°C temperature
(B) 100% RH, 20°C temperature
(C) 20% RH, 20°C temperature
(D) 20% RH, 60°C temperature
88. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?
(A) Ghagharia
(B) Bhimbetka
(C) Lekhahia
(D) Adamgarh
89. In which battle did Mohammad Ghori defeat Jaichand ?
(A) Battle of Tarain (1191 AD)
(B) Battle of Tarain (1192 AD)
(C) Battle of Chandawar (1194 AD)
(D) Battle of Kannauj (1194 AD)
90. Which medieval Indian ruler started the system of ‘‘Patta’’ and ‘‘Qabuliyat’’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Akbar
91. In whose reign was the ‘‘Treaty of Chittor’’ signed between the Mughals and Rana of Mewar ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
92. In the Vedic period, which animal was known as ‘‘Aghanya’’ ?
(A) Bull
(B) Sheep
(C) Cow
(D) Elephant
93. Who among the following British Officers lost their lives at Lucknow ?
1. General John Nicholson
2. General Neill
3. Major General Havelock
4. Sir Henry Lawrence
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the above
94. ‘‘Jiatrang Movement’’ started in—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Tripura
(C) Manipur
(D) Mizoram
95. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association founded in 1928 ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Delhi
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lahore
96. Who addressed Gandhiji as the ‘‘Father of the Nation’’ for the first time ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
97. The Ghadar Party was formed in—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) England
(D) United States of America
98. Arrange the following in chronological order. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Non-Cooperation Movement
2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Khilafat Movement
4. Quit India Movement
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
99. In which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress. Mahatma Gandhi had said, ‘‘Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain forever.’’?
(A) Ramgarh Session, 1940
(B) Lahore Session, 1929
(C) Calcutta Session, 1928
(D) Karachi Session, 1931
100. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review—
(A) the relations between the President and the Prime Minister
(B) the relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) the relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) The relations between the Union and the States
101. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
102. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court of Record’. It implies that—
(A) It has to keep a record of its decisions
(B) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court
(C) It has the power to punish for its contempt
(D) No appeal can be made against its decisions
103. We have a system of Judicial Review in—
(A) Indian only
(B) U. K. only
(C) U. S. A. only
(D) Both in India and U. S. A.
104. Under which Article of Indian Constitution, President of India enjoys power to withhold his assent on any Bill ?
(A) Article 63
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 109
(D) Article 111
105. Which one of the following States had the lowest per capita income at current prices in the year 2004-05 ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
106. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) was launched initially in 200 districts. In the budget for 2007-08, it was proposed to extend it to—
(A) 280 districts
(B) 300 districts
(C) 310 districts
(D) 330 districts
107. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : There has been a growing demand for review of Centre-State relationship.
Reason (R) : The States have no adequate resources to take up developmental projects.
In the light of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
108. Among the services sector, which has the highest share in India’s GDP in 2006 ?
(A) Trade, Hotels, Transport and Communications
(B) Finance, Insurance, Real estate and Business Services
(C) Community, social and personal services
(D) Construction of buildings
109. According to the Approach Paper of the 11th Five Year Plan, with the achievement of targeted growth rate and population growing at 1•5 per cent per annum, the real income of the average Indian would double
in—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
110. Indian Economy has witnessed highest growth rate in GDP in the year—
(A) 2003-04
(B) 2004-05
(C) 2005-06
(D) 2006-07
111. Savings ratio in India at present (2006-07) stands at—
(A) between 20 to 25 per cent of GDP
(B) between 25 to 30 per cent of GDP
(C) between 30 to 32 per cent of GDP
(D) above 32 per cent of GDP
112. HAL is related to manufacturing of—
(A) Telecommunication equipments
(B) Aircrafts
(C) Space missiles
(D) War missiles
113. Which one of the following is not the problem of Small Scale Industries (SSIs) ?
(A) Finances
(B) Marketing
(C) Raw materials
(D) Strikes and lockouts
114. The concept of ‘‘Navratna’’ is associated with—
(A) selected categories of technical manpower
(B) selected export-oriented units
(C) selected food-processing industries
(D) selected Public Sector Enterprises
115. Market in gilt-edged is related to trade in—
(A) metals
(B) debentures
(C) Government Securities
(D) Arms
116. Black soil of India is highly suited for the production of—
(A) Cotton crop
(B) Paddy crop
(C) Sugarcane crop
(D) Wheat crop
117. Which one of the following is evergreen fruit plant ?
(A) Apple
(B) Almond
(C) Peach
(D) Loquat
118. Which one of the following is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Pea
(C) Rice
(D) Spinach
119. Which one of the following agriculture practices is ecofriendly ?
(A) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
(B) Growing plants in glass houses
(C) Shifting cultivation
(D) Organic farming
120. The word ‘‘Actuaries’’ is related to—
(A) Banking
(B) Insurance
(C) Share-market
(D) None of the above
121. Capital Market means—
(A) share market
(B) commodity market
(C) money market
(D) All of the above
122. Sarnath Stambh was built by—
(A) Harshwardhan
(B) Ashok
(C) Gautam Buddha
(D) Kanishka
123. This is related to the culture of dance—
(A) Khyal and Baj Lucknow
(B) Banarsi Raj
(C) Rampur Darbar
(D) Agra Gharana
124. ‘Karagam’ a religious folk-dance is associated with—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
125. The propounder of Yog Philosophy is—
(A) Patanjali
(B) Yogi Gorakhnath
(C) Swami Ramdev
(D) Shankaracharya
126. Which States of India have derived maximum benefits from green revolution ?
(A) Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
(B) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Punjab, Haryana & Wastern U. P.
(D) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala
127. In which of the following years, foodgrain production had a negative growth-rate ?
(A) 2001-02
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06
128. In which of the years given below, growth-rate of Indian exports was highest ?
(A) 2002-03
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06
129. In the year 2004-05, following groups had important share in India’s imports :
1. Fuel
2. Capital goods
3. Gold and silver
4. Chemicals
Arrange the aforesaid items in descending order in terms of their percentage share and choose your answer with the help of given codes :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
130. During the period 1991-92, the decadal growth of population (in percentage terms) was lowest in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh
131. Who among the following has been conferred with Forbes Lifetime Achievement Award, 2008 ?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Lakshmi Mittal
(C) B. K. Birla
(D) Bill Gates
132. During 2004-05, which one of the following had the highest share in India’s exports ?
(A) Agriculture and allied products
(B) Ores and minerals
(C) Manufactured goods
(D) Petroleum products
133. Consider following statements as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Uttar Pradesh has the largest concentration of India’s population.
Reason (R) : It is also the most densely populated State of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and(R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
134. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) There has been continuous decline of sex-ratio since 1901 onwards
(B) Highest sex-ratio is observed during the Census of 1901
(C) Lowest sex-ratio has been recorded during the Census of 2001
(D) Maximum decline in the sex-ratio has been recorded during the decade of 1991-2001
135. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their population-size and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
136. Which of the following statements are true about the Rajasthan Desert ? Use the codes given below to select the correct answer :
1. It is the most densely populated desert of the world.
2. It is about 10,000 years old mainly caused by excessive human interference.
3. Here only 40 to 60 per cent of the area is suitable for farming.
4. The increase in net sown area has adversely affected the coverage of grazing lands.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
137. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Maharashtra is the most urbanised State of the country.
2. Urban growth along the coast is converting the area into a concrete jungle.
3. From Mumbai to Ahmedabad, the largest megalopolis of the country is in the offing.
4. Cities are full of slums and highly polluted.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
138. Among the following places which one gets the least rainfall ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Leh
139. Which one of the following races is correctly matched ?
(A) Hemites—Uganda
(B) Semites—Malaysia
(C) Sakai—Sudan
(D) Bushman—Botswana
140. In India, the two most urbanised States are—
(A) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Goa and Mizoram
(D) Gujarat and Karnataka
141. More than one-fourth of India’s urban population lives in the two States of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
142. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Copenhagen—Denmark
(B) Berlin—Germany
(C) Paris—France
(D) Oslo—Norway
143. The equator passes through—
(A) Ca6meroon
(B) Costa Rica
(C) Kenya
(D) Venezuela
144. Which one of the following ports is not located on the eastern coast of India ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kandla
(C) Paradwip
(D) Tuticorin
145. According to Census 2001,the percentage of urban population in India, is—
(A) 27•3
(B) 27•8
(C) 28•3
(D) 28•8
146. According to Census 2001, which one of the following States has the highest literacy ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) West Bangal
147. Which one of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappah system
(D) Vindhyan System
148. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Inland waterways are not well developed in India.
Reason (R) : Most parts of India receive rainfall only for four months in a year.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
149. The Asteroids are small celestial bodies in the solar system which are found between the planets—
(A) Mercury and Venus
(B) Mars and Jupiter
(C) Jupiter and Saturn
(D) Neptune and Saturn
150. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of—
(A) Copper ore
(B) Iron ore
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (A) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C)
91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (D)
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (D) 115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (B) 125. (A) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (C) 129. (A) 130. (C)
131. (B) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (A) 137. (C) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (C)
141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)
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